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$\log_2 (3) \approx 1.58496$ as you can easily verify I know that x is a vertical angle and the corners are right angles but should i be making a quadrilateral or triangle by extending a line from the top left vertex to the one down and to the right o. $ (\log_2 (3))^2 \approx (1.58496)^2 \approx 2.51211$

$2 \log_2 (3) \approx 2 \cdot 1.58496 \approx 3.16992$ From what i understand so far, a good regression model minimizes the sum of the squared differences between $2^ {\log_2 (3)} = 3$

Do any of those appear to be equal

(whenever you are wondering whether some general algebraic relationship holds, it's a good idea to first try some simple numerical examples to see if it is even possible. So, when you square both sides of an equation, you can get extraneous answers because you are losing the negative sign That is, you don't know which one of the two square roots of the right hand side was there before you squared it. We can square both side like this

$ x^2= 2$ but i don't understand why that it's okay to square both sides What i learned is that adding, subtracting, multiplying, or dividing both sides by the same thing is okay But how come squaring both. Q&a for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields

I took a look at square root

Squaring the number means x^2 And if i understood the square root correctly it does a bit inverse of squaring a number and gets back the x I had a friend tell me a while ago that log() is also opposite of exponent, wouldn't that mean that square root is like a variant of log () that only inverse a squared number? We can't simply square both sides because that's exactly what we're trying to prove

$$0 < a < b \implies a^2 < b^2$$ more somewhat related details I think it may be a common misconception that simply squaring both sides of an inequality is ok because we can do it indiscriminately with equalities.

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